SBA Pharmacology 10 Single Best Answer (SBA)
If questions aren't showing, refresh the page.
1. A 60-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents with bradycardia (heart rate 42 bpm) and hypotension. He recently increased his atenolol dose. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Answer: Administer IV atropine
IV atropine is the first-line therapy for acute symptomatic bradycardia, including beta-blocker-induced bradycardia. If ineffective, glucagon or pacing may be considered.
2. A 55-year-old man taking atorvastatin for hyperlipidaemia reports muscle pain and weakness. What is the most appropriate next step?
Answer: Stop atorvastatin and check creatine kinase levels
In patients on statins who develop muscle symptoms, statin-induced myopathy must be ruled out by discontinuing therapy and checking CK levels.
3. A 30-year-old woman with Crohn’s disease is started on azathioprine. What test is essential before initiating treatment?
Answer: Thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) activity
Measuring TPMT activity identifies patients at high risk of azathioprine-induced bone marrow suppression, allowing dose adjustments or alternative therapy.
4. A 25-year-old woman using a beclometasone inhaler for asthma asks how to prevent oral thrush. What is the correct advice?
Answer: Rinse the mouth after using the inhaler
To prevent oral candidiasis from inhaled corticosteroids, patients should rinse their mouth or brush their teeth after each use.
5. How does bendroflumethiazide lower blood pressure?
Answer: Inhibition of sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule
Bendroflumethiazide is a thiazide diuretic that reduces sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule, lowering plasma volume and BP.
6. In which condition is bisoprolol most beneficial for improving long-term prognosis?
Answer: Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction
Bisoprolol (and certain other beta-blockers) is proven to reduce mortality in HFrEF, while in other conditions it mainly provides symptomatic benefit.
7. A 40-year-old man with Crohn’s disease declines budesonide treatment despite being counselled about its benefits. What is the most appropriate next step?
Answer: Respect his decision and document the discussion
Patient autonomy must be respected if they have capacity. Document the discussion and continue to offer supportive care.
8. What is the mechanism of action of buprenorphine?
Answer: Partial agonist at mu-opioid receptors
Buprenorphine’s partial mu-agonist action provides analgesia with a lower risk of respiratory depression compared to full agonists.
9. A 30-year-old man overdoses on carbamazepine. He presents with drowsiness, ataxia, and arrhythmias. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Answer: Activated charcoal if within 1 hour of ingestion
Early administration of activated charcoal can reduce carbamazepine absorption. Supportive measures may be required for severe toxicity.
10. What is the most serious side effect of carbimazole?
Answer: Agranulocytosis
Carbimazole can rarely cause agranulocytosis, leading to severe infections. Patients should report any sore throat or fever urgently.
Total Score: 0/10