Dermatology 10 Single Best Answer (SBA)
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1. A 5-year-old child presents with small, pearly, dome-shaped papules with central umbilication on the trunk. The mother is concerned about spread. What is the most appropriate advice?
Answer: Reassure that the condition is self-limiting
Molluscum contagiosum is a benign viral infection that typically resolves spontaneously over months without intervention.
2. A 30-year-old woman spills hot tea on her forearm, resulting in redness and pain without blisters. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Answer: Cool the burn with running water for at least 20 minutes
Cooling a burn promptly limits tissue damage and alleviates pain. Further steps (dressing, analgesia) follow initial cooling.
3. A 40-year-old man presents with an itchy, raised rash appearing intermittently for the past week. He denies exposure to new foods or medications. What is the most likely cause?
Answer: Idiopathic urticaria
Chronic or recurrent urticaria is often idiopathic, especially without clear triggers or new exposures.
4. What is the underlying mechanism of lichen planus?
Answer: T-cell mediated autoimmune response targeting keratinocytes
Lichen planus involves an inflammatory autoimmune process in which T lymphocytes attack the basal layer of the epidermis.
5. A 10-year-old boy presents with partial-thickness burns covering 12% of his total body surface area (TBSA). What is the most appropriate next step?
Answer: Refer to a specialist burns unit
Paediatric burns exceeding 10% TBSA require specialist evaluation and management in a dedicated burns centre.
6. A 25-year-old woman presents with widespread blistering, mucosal involvement, and a targetoid rash after starting carbamazepine. What is the most appropriate next step?
Answer: Admit to a burns unit for supportive care
SJS is an emergency requiring withdrawal of the offending agent and multidisciplinary supportive care in a specialised setting.
7. A 70-year-old woman presents with a painful ulcer on the medial malleolus. The surrounding skin is hyperpigmented, and she has pitting oedema. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Venous leg ulcer
Venous ulcers on the medial malleolus are associated with venous stasis, hyperpigmentation, and oedema.
8. What is the most effective strategy to prevent pressure ulcers in hospitalised patients?
Answer: Repositioning every 2 hours and using pressure-relieving devices
Frequent repositioning and special mattresses/cushions reduce pressure on susceptible areas, preventing ulcer formation.
9. A 40-year-old woman presents with an intensely itchy patch on her neck that she frequently scratches. Examination reveals a thickened, scaly plaque. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Answer: High-potency topical corticosteroid
Lichen simplex chronicus (neurodermatitis) results from repeated scratching, requiring potent topical steroids to suppress inflammation and itch.
10. A 35-year-old man develops a widespread maculopapular rash 7 days after starting amoxicillin. He has no fever or systemic symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Drug eruption
Simple drug eruptions typically appear 1–2 weeks after starting a medication, presenting as a non-severe, maculopapular rash without significant systemic involvement.
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