Dermatology 10 Single Best Answer (SBA)
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1. A 5-year-old boy presents with fever, cough, conjunctivitis, and a maculopapular rash starting on the face and spreading downward. Examination reveals Koplik spots on the buccal mucosa. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Measles
Koplik spots are pathognomonic for measles, along with the characteristic rash and the triad of cough, conjunctivitis, and coryza.
2. A 9-month-old infant develops a sudden high fever lasting 3 days, followed by a pink maculopapular rash as the fever subsides. What is the most likely complication of this condition?
Answer: Febrile seizures
Roseola (exanthem subitum) is known for high fever in infants, leading to febrile seizures before the rash appears.
3. A 30-year-old woman presents with recurrent painful nodules in her axillae that occasionally drain purulent fluid. She feels embarrassed and struggles with daily activities. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Answer: Topical clindamycin
Mild hidradenitis suppurativa responds to topical clindamycin. More severe disease may need oral antibiotics or biologics.
4. What is the underlying mechanism of pompholyx (dyshidrotic eczema)?
Answer: Idiopathic inflammatory response causing vesicles on palms and soles
Pompholyx features recurrent, intensely itchy vesicles on hands/feet with an unknown exact cause (idiopathic).
5. A 45-year-old man presents with a dog bite on his forearm. The wound is superficial but erythematous. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Answer: Irrigate the wound and start co-amoxiclav
Thorough cleaning plus antibiotic prophylaxis is crucial for dog bites to prevent infection, typically using co-amoxiclav.
6. A 7-year-old girl presents with an itchy scalp. Examination reveals live lice and nits attached to the hair shafts. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?
Answer: Wet combing and topical permethrin
Head lice are effectively treated with mechanical removal (wet combing) and a pediculicide such as permethrin lotion.
7. A 60-year-old man with diabetes presents with severe pain, swelling, and dusky discoloration of his thigh. He is hypotensive and febrile. What is the most important initial management?
Answer: Start broad-spectrum IV antibiotics and perform emergency surgical debridement
Necrotising fasciitis demands urgent surgical exploration/debridement and empiric, broad-spectrum antibiotics to minimise mortality.
8. A 5-year-old boy presents with perianal itching, particularly at night. His mother observes small white worms in his stool. What is the most effective way to prevent reinfection?
Answer: Treat the entire household with mebendazole
Pinworm infections spread easily within families. Household treatment plus hygiene measures prevent ongoing cycles.
9. A 6-year-old girl presents with fever, sore throat, and a sandpaper-like rash. A throat swab confirms Group A Streptococcus. What advice should be given to the parents regarding school attendance?
Answer: The child can return to school 24 hours after starting antibiotics
After a full day of appropriate antibiotics, children with scarlet fever are generally no longer infectious and can return to school.
10. A 19-year-old man presents with fever, fatigue, and pharyngitis. Examination shows posterior cervical lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly. Monospot test is positive. What is the most likely complication?
Answer: Splenic rupture
Enlarged spleen is vulnerable to rupture in EBV mononucleosis, necessitating caution with contact sports or heavy lifting.
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